Safety & Your Vehicle — Car Theory Test Practice

214 original car-theory-test questions on safety & your vehicle, each with the correct answer and an explanation referencing the UK Highway Code. Pass mark 43/50.

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  1. Q1. What is the legal minimum tread depth for car tyres in the UK?

    1. A. 1 mm across the central three-quarters
    2. B. 1.6 mm across the central three-quarters of the tyre around the entire circumference Correct answer
    3. C. 2 mm across the full tyre width
    4. D. 3.2 mm in the centre

    Explanation. The legal minimum tread depth for car tyres is 1.6 mm across the central three-quarters of the tyre around its entire circumference.

  2. Q2. How often should you check your tyre pressures?

    1. A. Once a year at MOT time
    2. B. Only when a tyre looks flat
    3. C. At least once a week and before long journeys Correct answer
    4. D. Every 10,000 miles

    Explanation. Check tyre pressure at least once a week when the tyres are cold. Incorrect pressure affects handling, tyre wear and fuel economy.

  3. Q3. Your headlights are faulty on one side. When must you repair this?

    1. A. Within seven days
    2. B. Before driving at night
    3. C. Immediately — you must not drive with faulty headlights Correct answer
    4. D. Only if driving on a motorway

    Explanation. Defective lights are both a safety risk and a legal offence. You must not drive until they are repaired.

  4. Q4. When should you use hazard warning lights?

    1. A. When double-parking briefly
    2. B. When your vehicle has broken down or is a temporary obstruction to warn other drivers Correct answer
    3. C. Whenever driving slowly
    4. D. When parking on yellow lines

    Explanation. Use hazard lights when stationary and creating a hazard. On motorways they can briefly warn drivers behind of a sudden hazard ahead.

  5. Q5. Your brakes feel spongy or go to the floor. What should you do?

    1. A. Drive carefully to the nearest garage
    2. B. Top up the brake fluid yourself
    3. C. Stop driving immediately and get expert advice Correct answer
    4. D. Pump the pedal rapidly

    Explanation. Spongy brakes indicate air in the brake lines or a fluid leak — a serious safety defect. Do not drive until inspected by a qualified mechanic.

  6. Q6. Oil is dripping from your car. What is the main risk?

    1. A. Increased fuel consumption
    2. B. The engine may overheat or seize; the oil creates a slippery hazard for other road users Correct answer
    3. C. Reduced top speed only
    4. D. Damage to the paint

    Explanation. An oil leak creates a road surface hazard and, if the level drops too low, risks serious engine damage. Address both risks immediately.

  7. Q7. What does the law require regarding vehicle defects?

    1. A. Report them to the DVLA within 7 days
    2. B. Only repair them before the MOT
    3. C. Ensure the vehicle is maintained in a roadworthy condition at all times Correct answer
    4. D. Fix them only if they would cause an MOT failure

    Explanation. The driver is responsible for ensuring their vehicle is roadworthy. Knowingly driving a vehicle with dangerous defects is an offence.

  8. Q8. When are you allowed to drive without a seatbelt?

    1. A. When reversing Correct answer
    2. B. When driving at very low speed in a car park
    3. C. There is no general exemption — you must always wear one unless specifically exempt
    4. D. When driving a short distance

    Explanation. One specific exemption in UK law is when the manoeuvre includes reversing. Certain professions (e.g. taxi drivers with a certificate) also have exemptions.

  9. Q9. What is the purpose of cruise control?

    1. A. To automatically steer the vehicle
    2. B. To maintain a pre-set speed without pressing the accelerator Correct answer
    3. C. To prevent the vehicle exceeding the speed limit
    4. D. To improve fuel economy in all situations

    Explanation. Cruise control maintains a driver-set speed. It should not be used in heavy traffic, on slippery roads or in poor weather.

  10. Q10. Your vehicle pulls to one side when braking. What is the most likely cause?

    1. A. The road is cambered
    2. B. Uneven tyre pressures or a brake fault Correct answer
    3. C. The tyres are too wide
    4. D. The steering is not centred

    Explanation. Pulling to one side under braking usually indicates uneven tyre pressures, uneven tyre wear, or a brake fault. Have the vehicle inspected.

  11. Q11. What lights must you use in seriously reduced visibility during daylight hours?

    1. A. Sidelights only
    2. B. Full beam headlights
    3. C. Dipped headlights Correct answer
    4. D. Hazard lights

    Explanation. The Highway Code requires dipped headlights when visibility is seriously reduced, generally to less than 100 metres.

  12. Q12. You must NOT use your horn when:

    1. A. Travelling over 60 mph
    2. B. Stationary, unless another road user poses immediate danger Correct answer
    3. C. On a motorway
    4. D. In a 20 mph zone

    Explanation. You must not sound the horn when stationary (except to warn a moving road user of danger) or between 11:30 pm and 7:00 am in a built-up area.

  13. Q13. Your engine temperature gauge shows it is overheating. What should you do?

    1. A. Continue to your destination driving carefully
    2. B. Stop safely, switch off and wait for it to cool before opening the radiator cap Correct answer
    3. C. Add cold water immediately
    4. D. Ignore it if the warning light is not on

    Explanation. An overheating engine can cause serious damage. Stop safely, let it cool fully before removing the radiator cap, and investigate the cause before continuing.

  14. Q14. You discover a crack in your windscreen that is in your field of vision. What should you do?

    1. A. Cover it with tape and carry on
    2. B. Have it repaired or replaced before driving further Correct answer
    3. C. Only replace it at your next service
    4. D. Ignore it if it is less than 1 cm wide

    Explanation. A cracked windscreen in your field of vision is a safety risk and could cause an MOT failure. Have it repaired or replaced before driving.

  15. Q15. What is the purpose of the anti-lock braking system (ABS)?

    1. A. To stop the vehicle faster than normal braking
    2. B. To prevent the wheels from locking during hard braking, allowing the driver to steer Correct answer
    3. C. To automatically apply the brakes in an emergency
    4. D. To reduce fuel consumption

    Explanation. ABS prevents wheels from locking under hard braking, which allows the driver to continue steering. It does not necessarily reduce stopping distances.

  16. Q16. Your power steering warning light comes on while driving. What should you do?

    1. A. Ignore it until the next service
    2. B. Stop in a safe place and check the power steering fluid level Correct answer
    3. C. Continue carefully, power steering is optional
    4. D. Turn the steering wheel repeatedly to reset it

    Explanation. A power steering warning light means the system may be failing. Stop safely and check the fluid level. Driving without power steering is possible but much harder.

  17. Q17. Before a long journey, which three checks are most important?

    1. A. Fuel, interior cleanliness, and air conditioning
    2. B. Tyres, oil, and water Correct answer
    3. C. Radio, mirrors, and doors
    4. D. Spare tyre, handbook, and first aid kit

    Explanation. Before any long journey, check tyres (condition and pressure), engine oil level, and coolant level as a minimum. Also check fuel, lights and windscreen washer fluid.

  18. Q18. Your exhaust is emitting black smoke. What does this most likely indicate?

    1. A. Normal engine operation
    2. B. Rich fuel mixture — too much fuel being burned, often a faulty injector or air filter Correct answer
    3. C. Coolant in the cylinders
    4. D. Normal on cold starts

    Explanation. Black smoke from the exhaust indicates the engine is running too rich (burning excess fuel). This increases emissions and usually means a faulty fuel injector, air filter or sensor.

  19. Q19. What should you do before driving a vehicle you are not familiar with?

    1. A. Just drive it — all cars are the same
    2. B. Check where all the controls are, adjust the seat and mirrors, and familiarise yourself with the layout before moving Correct answer
    3. C. Only adjust the mirrors
    4. D. Drive slowly until you learn the controls

    Explanation. Always familiarise yourself with an unfamiliar vehicle before driving: find controls (lights, wipers, horn, hazards), adjust the seat and all mirrors.

  20. Q20. Your steering becomes very heavy while driving. What could this indicate?

    1. A. Normal behaviour on a cold day
    2. B. A front tyre may have deflated Correct answer
    3. C. The road is rough
    4. D. The steering lock is engaged

    Explanation. Sudden heavy steering usually indicates a front tyre deflation or blow-out. Keep a firm hold on the wheel, reduce speed gradually and stop safely.

  21. Q21. You notice your brake pedal is much lower than usual before the brakes engage. What should you do?

    1. A. Continue driving but avoid hard braking
    2. B. Stop immediately and do not drive until the brakes have been checked by a mechanic Correct answer
    3. C. Pump the brakes a few times to restore normal feel
    4. D. Add brake fluid to the reservoir

    Explanation. A low, spongy or unresponsive pedal indicates a brake system problem — possibly a leak or air in the system. This is a safety-critical defect; do not drive.

  22. Q22. What is the legal minimum tread depth for car tyres in the UK?

    1. A. 1.0 mm
    2. B. 1.6 mm Correct answer
    3. C. 2.0 mm
    4. D. 3.0 mm

    Explanation. Car tyres must have at least 1.6 mm of tread across the central three-quarters of the tyre, around its entire circumference.

  23. Q23. Over what portion of the tyre width must the minimum tread depth be maintained?

    1. A. The central three-quarters Correct answer
    2. B. The outer edges only
    3. C. The full width
    4. D. Only at one spot

    Explanation. The 1.6 mm minimum applies across the central three-quarters of the breadth of the tread, around the entire circumference.

  24. Q24. When should you normally check tyre pressures?

    1. A. When the tyres are hot after a long journey
    2. B. When the tyres are cold Correct answer
    3. C. Only once a year
    4. D. Only before an MOT

    Explanation. Tyre pressures should be checked when the tyres are cold so that warming has not temporarily raised the reading.

  25. Q25. Where can you find the recommended tyre pressures for your car?

    1. A. On the rear number plate
    2. B. In the owner's handbook or on a sticker inside the fuel filler or door jamb Correct answer
    3. C. Stamped on the steering wheel
    4. D. On the tyre itself

    Explanation. Manufacturers list recommended pressures in the handbook and commonly on a placard inside the driver's door or fuel filler flap.

  26. Q26. What is a likely consequence of driving with under-inflated tyres?

    1. A. Better fuel economy
    2. B. Increased fuel consumption and faster edge wear Correct answer
    3. C. Longer tyre life
    4. D. Lower braking distance

    Explanation. Under-inflation increases rolling resistance (raising fuel use) and causes the tyre shoulders to wear more rapidly.

  27. Q27. Over-inflated tyres typically wear most on which area?

    1. A. Both edges equally
    2. B. The central band of the tread Correct answer
    3. C. Only the inner shoulder
    4. D. The sidewall

    Explanation. Excess pressure makes the centre of the tread bulge and contact the road more, causing uneven wear in the middle.

  28. Q28. You notice a bulge on the sidewall of a tyre. What should you do?

    1. A. Carry on, it is cosmetic
    2. B. Replace the tyre before driving further Correct answer
    3. C. Only reduce the pressure
    4. D. Wait for the MOT

    Explanation. A sidewall bulge indicates internal structural damage; the tyre could fail suddenly and must be replaced.

  29. Q29. What should you do if a tyre has a deep cut longer than 25 mm or 10% of its section width?

    1. A. Plug it with sealant
    2. B. Replace it; it is unroadworthy Correct answer
    3. C. Reduce pressure and keep using it
    4. D. Swap it to the spare wheel position

    Explanation. Such cuts make a tyre illegal and unsafe; the tyre must be replaced.

  30. Q30. Uneven tyre wear across one axle most commonly suggests a problem with what?

    1. A. Wheel alignment or tracking Correct answer
    2. B. The exhaust
    3. C. The battery
    4. D. The air conditioning

    Explanation. Incorrect alignment causes tyres to scrub, producing characteristic uneven wear patterns.

  31. Q31. When fitting a space-saver spare wheel, which rule generally applies?

    1. A. Drive normally
    2. B. Do not exceed the speed stated on the wheel (often 50 mph) and replace it as soon as possible Correct answer
    3. C. Only use on motorways
    4. D. Fit only to the front axle

    Explanation. Space-saver spares are temporary; manufacturers specify a reduced maximum speed, commonly around 50 mph.

  32. Q32. Why should you check tyres regularly for small stones in the tread?

    1. A. They improve grip
    2. B. They can damage the rubber and mask punctures Correct answer
    3. C. They reduce road noise
    4. D. They are illegal to carry

    Explanation. Stones can work deeper into the tread, causing damage or hiding slow punctures that later fail.

  33. Q33. Your tyre pressure warning light comes on while driving. What should you do first?

    1. A. Ignore it
    2. B. Slow down and safely check the tyres at the next opportunity Correct answer
    3. C. Brake hard immediately
    4. D. Continue to your destination and check tomorrow

    Explanation. A TPMS warning may indicate a puncture; reduce speed and inspect the tyres as soon as it is safe.

  34. Q34. Mixing radial and cross-ply tyres on the same axle is:

    1. A. Recommended for grip
    2. B. Illegal in the UK Correct answer
    3. C. Good for fuel economy
    4. D. Only allowed on rear axles

    Explanation. Mixing tyre construction types on an axle is not permitted and seriously reduces stability.

  35. Q35. What is aquaplaning?

    1. A. When tyres overheat
    2. B. When a layer of water separates the tyre from the road Correct answer
    3. C. When wheels lock under braking
    4. D. When a tyre deflates slowly

    Explanation. Surface water can lift the tyre off the road, temporarily removing steering and braking grip.

  36. Q36. If you feel the steering becoming unusually light in heavy rain, you may be:

    1. A. Aquaplaning Correct answer
    2. B. Running low on fuel
    3. C. Losing power steering fluid
    4. D. Overheating

    Explanation. Lightness of the steering at speed in rain is a classic symptom of aquaplaning.

  37. Q37. The safest reaction to aquaplaning is:

    1. A. Brake firmly
    2. B. Ease off the accelerator and keep the steering straight until grip returns Correct answer
    3. C. Accelerate hard
    4. D. Pull the handbrake

    Explanation. Gentle throttle release lets tyres bite again; braking or sharp steering can cause a skid.

  38. Q38. A tyre must be replaced if the tread wear indicators are:

    1. A. Hidden by dirt
    2. B. Flush with the surrounding tread Correct answer
    3. C. Still well below the tread surface
    4. D. Coloured red

    Explanation. Wear indicators sit at 1.6 mm; when level with the tread, the tyre is at the legal limit.

  39. Q39. Which of these would fail an MOT?

    1. A. A tyre with 3 mm tread
    2. B. A tyre with a cord showing Correct answer
    3. C. A tyre fitted last year
    4. D. A tyre with the correct pressure

    Explanation. Exposed cords indicate serious damage and make the tyre unroadworthy.

  40. Q40. Why should you inflate tyres above the standard pressure before a long motorway trip with a heavy load?

    1. A. To save fuel at idle
    2. B. The handbook usually lists higher pressures for heavy loads to maintain stability Correct answer
    3. C. To increase top speed
    4. D. To avoid congestion

    Explanation. Manufacturers typically specify raised pressures when carrying heavier loads or at sustained high speeds.

  41. Q41. A slow puncture might be indicated by:

    1. A. Louder music
    2. B. The car pulling to one side and uneven tyre pressures Correct answer
    3. C. Cleaner windows
    4. D. A warm bonnet

    Explanation. Gradual deflation often causes the vehicle to veer and shows up on pressure checks.

  42. Q42. Tyres with the letter designation "M+S" are intended for:

    1. A. Maximum speed use
    2. B. Mud and snow conditions Correct answer
    3. C. Motorway only
    4. D. Mountain sport driving

    Explanation. M+S marks tyres designed to give improved grip in mud and snow.

  43. Q43. When should you visually inspect your tyres?

    1. A. Once per year
    2. B. At least weekly and before long journeys Correct answer
    3. C. Only at MOT time
    4. D. Only after a crash

    Explanation. Regular checks catch cuts, bulges, nails and low pressure before they cause failures.

  44. Q44. Driving with a noticeably flat tyre is:

    1. A. Fine if you go slowly
    2. B. Illegal and dangerous — stop and change it safely or call for help Correct answer
    3. C. Required by law to reach a garage
    4. D. Acceptable for short distances only

    Explanation. A flat tyre makes the car unroadworthy and can damage the wheel; stop and address it.

  45. Q45. Which axle's tyres typically wear faster on a front-wheel-drive car?

    1. A. Rear
    2. B. Front Correct answer
    3. C. Spare
    4. D. They wear equally

    Explanation. Front tyres steer, drive and brake, so they generally wear faster on a FWD car.

  46. Q46. The maximum fine for driving with one illegal tyre can be:

    1. A. £50
    2. B. Up to £2,500 and 3 penalty points per tyre Correct answer
    3. C. Just a warning
    4. D. Licence revoked automatically

    Explanation. Penalties can reach £2,500 and 3 points per defective tyre.

  47. Q47. A spongy feel at the brake pedal usually means:

    1. A. The brakes are perfect
    2. B. Air or moisture in the hydraulic system Correct answer
    3. C. The handbrake is on
    4. D. Tyres are under-inflated

    Explanation. A soft, spongy pedal is a classic sign of air in the brake fluid or a fluid problem requiring inspection.

  48. Q48. The brake warning light stays on after you release the handbrake. You should:

    1. A. Ignore it
    2. B. Check brake fluid and have the brakes inspected without delay Correct answer
    3. C. Continue as normal
    4. D. Turn it off with the fuse

    Explanation. A lit brake warning may indicate low fluid or a fault; treat the car as potentially unsafe until checked.

  49. Q49. ABS is designed to:

    1. A. Shorten stopping distances on all surfaces
    2. B. Prevent the wheels locking so you can keep steering while braking hard Correct answer
    3. C. Replace the need for tyres with good tread
    4. D. Reduce engine emissions

    Explanation. ABS keeps wheels rotating during emergency braking, allowing continued steering control.

  50. Q50. When performing an emergency stop in a car with ABS, you should:

    1. A. Pump the pedal repeatedly
    2. B. Press the pedal firmly and keep it pressed while steering as needed Correct answer
    3. C. Pull the handbrake sharply
    4. D. Press the clutch first and coast

    Explanation. Keep firm pressure on the brake; the ABS will modulate for you.

  51. Q51. On loose gravel or snow, ABS may:

    1. A. Shorten stopping distances
    2. B. Actually increase stopping distances compared with locked wheels Correct answer
    3. C. Switch the engine off
    4. D. Improve cornering

    Explanation. On very loose surfaces a wedge of material builds ahead of a locked wheel, so ABS can lengthen stopping distance — though steering is retained.

  52. Q52. The ABS warning lamp stays lit while you drive. This means:

    1. A. Normal brakes still work but the anti-lock function is inoperative Correct answer
    2. B. The brakes have totally failed
    3. C. The battery is flat
    4. D. The oil is low

    Explanation. Conventional braking still works, but without anti-lock assistance; get the system checked.

  53. Q53. Brake fluid is hygroscopic, meaning it:

    1. A. Absorbs water from the air over time Correct answer
    2. B. Evaporates in sunlight
    3. C. Freezes above 0°C
    4. D. Turns into oil

    Explanation. Brake fluid absorbs moisture, which lowers its boiling point and requires periodic replacement.

  54. Q54. How often is brake fluid usually recommended to be changed?

    1. A. Every 10,000 miles
    2. B. Typically every two years or as per the handbook Correct answer
    3. C. Only when it turns blue
    4. D. Every MOT

    Explanation. Manufacturers often specify brake fluid replacement on a time-based interval, commonly every two years.

  55. Q55. The parking brake (handbrake) on most cars acts on which wheels?

    1. A. The front wheels
    2. B. The rear wheels Correct answer
    3. C. All four wheels
    4. D. Neither axle

    Explanation. In most cars the parking brake operates on the rear wheels via a cable or electric actuator.

  56. Q56. You should apply the parking brake:

    1. A. Whenever the vehicle is stationary and you have finished with the footbrake Correct answer
    2. B. Only at traffic lights
    3. C. Only uphill
    4. D. Never in summer

    Explanation. Use the parking brake to hold the vehicle when stopped and the footbrake is not needed.

  57. Q57. A pulsing brake pedal under heavy braking typically indicates:

    1. A. ABS activation, which is normal Correct answer
    2. B. Brake failure
    3. C. A flat tyre
    4. D. The fuel is low

    Explanation. Pulsations during hard braking are the ABS modulating pressure; keep pressing.

  58. Q58. A squealing noise from the brakes often indicates:

    1. A. New tyres
    2. B. Worn brake pads with wear-indicator contact Correct answer
    3. C. Low washer fluid
    4. D. Over-inflated tyres

    Explanation. Many pads have metal wear tabs that squeal against the disc when friction material is low.

  59. Q59. Pulling to one side under braking could indicate:

    1. A. Sticking caliper or uneven pad wear Correct answer
    2. B. Clean oil
    3. C. Hot weather
    4. D. A full tank of fuel

    Explanation. Unequal braking between left and right wheels drags the car sideways under braking.

  60. Q60. When parked on a steep downhill slope, you should:

    1. A. Leave the wheels straight
    2. B. Turn the wheels towards the kerb and apply the parking brake Correct answer
    3. C. Leave it in neutral
    4. D. Disconnect the battery

    Explanation. Turning wheels into the kerb provides a mechanical stop if the brake were to fail.

  61. Q61. When parked facing uphill with a kerb, the front wheels should be turned:

    1. A. Away from the kerb Correct answer
    2. B. Towards the kerb
    3. C. Straight ahead
    4. D. It does not matter

    Explanation. Turning away from the kerb means the wheel rolls back into the kerb if the car moves.

  62. Q62. An electronic parking brake is typically applied by:

    1. A. A foot pedal only
    2. B. A switch or button on the dashboard or centre console Correct answer
    3. C. The gear selector
    4. D. The indicator stalk

    Explanation. EPBs use a switch, usually on the centre console, to clamp the rear brakes electrically.

  63. Q63. If your brakes fail while driving you should:

    1. A. Pump the pedal, change down through the gears and use the parking brake progressively Correct answer
    2. B. Switch the engine off immediately
    3. C. Open the door and jump
    4. D. Press the clutch and coast

    Explanation. Use every means to slow down: pump the pedal, engine braking via lower gears and gentle parking-brake application.

  64. Q64. Brake fade is most likely after:

    1. A. Long, continuous use of the brakes on a steep descent Correct answer
    2. B. A cold start
    3. C. Driving in rain
    4. D. Using cruise control

    Explanation. Overheated brakes lose effectiveness; use lower gears on long descents to reduce reliance on the brakes.

  65. Q65. To reduce brake fade on a long downhill, you should:

    1. A. Ride the brakes constantly
    2. B. Select a lower gear to use engine braking Correct answer
    3. C. Put the car in neutral
    4. D. Turn the engine off

    Explanation. A lower gear allows engine compression to help slow the car, sparing the brakes.

  66. Q66. Testing brakes after driving through deep water is advisable because:

    1. A. Brakes may be less effective until the water is dried off by light use Correct answer
    2. B. The tyres might be wet
    3. C. Water improves brake grip
    4. D. It is required by law every time

    Explanation. Wet brakes can be weak; drive slowly and gently apply them to dry the discs.

  67. Q67. You must use dipped headlights when daytime visibility is seriously reduced, generally meaning less than:

    1. A. 500 metres
    2. B. 200 metres
    3. C. 100 metres Correct answer
    4. D. 50 metres

    Explanation. The Highway Code recommends dipped headlights when visibility drops below 100 metres.

  68. Q68. Rear fog lights should be switched off when:

    1. A. Visibility improves to more than 100 metres Correct answer
    2. B. Driving at night
    3. C. It is raining
    4. D. You are on the motorway

    Explanation. Rear fog lights dazzle drivers behind and must be switched off once visibility is no longer seriously reduced.

  69. Q69. Misaligned headlights are most likely to:

    1. A. Improve fuel economy
    2. B. Dazzle oncoming drivers or fail to light the road properly Correct answer
    3. C. Damage the battery
    4. D. Reduce tyre wear

    Explanation. Incorrectly aimed headlights can blind others and reduce your own view.

  70. Q70. Hazard warning lights may be used while driving to:

    1. A. Say thank you
    2. B. Warn following traffic on a motorway or dual carriageway of a queue or obstruction ahead Correct answer
    3. C. Claim priority through a junction
    4. D. Park on double yellows

    Explanation. The Highway Code permits brief use of hazards on motorways/dual carriageways to warn of a sudden hazard or queue ahead.

  71. Q71. Hazard warning lights should not normally be used to:

    1. A. Warn of a breakdown
    2. B. Warn of a motorway queue briefly
    3. C. Justify illegal parking Correct answer
    4. D. Indicate a broken-down vehicle being towed

    Explanation. Hazards do not make otherwise illegal parking lawful.

  72. Q72. A bulb failure warning appears. What is the correct action?

    1. A. Ignore it until the MOT
    2. B. Replace the faulty bulb as soon as possible Correct answer
    3. C. Cover the lamp with tape
    4. D. Switch all lights off permanently

    Explanation. All required lights must work; replace failed bulbs promptly.

  73. Q73. You should use main-beam headlights:

    1. A. In a stream of traffic
    2. B. On unlit roads when no vehicles are ahead or oncoming Correct answer
    3. C. In heavy fog
    4. D. Whenever you are on the motorway

    Explanation. Use main beam to improve vision on unlit roads, dipping for oncoming or preceding traffic.

  74. Q74. Dipping headlights for oncoming vehicles helps to:

    1. A. Save fuel
    2. B. Prevent dazzling the other driver Correct answer
    3. C. Attract attention
    4. D. Charge the battery

    Explanation. Dipped beam is angled downward to keep light out of other drivers' eyes.

  75. Q75. Daytime running lights (DRLs) are designed to:

    1. A. Illuminate the road at night
    2. B. Make your vehicle more visible to others in daylight Correct answer
    3. C. Act as fog lamps
    4. D. Replace brake lights

    Explanation. DRLs improve conspicuity during the day and do not fully light the road.

  76. Q76. At dusk you should:

    1. A. Wait until it is fully dark before using lights
    2. B. Switch on dipped headlights to be seen Correct answer
    3. C. Use only sidelights
    4. D. Flash main beam

    Explanation. Switching on dipped headlights early helps others see you as light fades.

  77. Q77. Sidelights alone are generally only appropriate:

    1. A. For parking on unlit roads where permitted Correct answer
    2. B. On the motorway at night
    3. C. In heavy rain
    4. D. At any time as an alternative to dipped beam

    Explanation. Sidelights are intended for parking where allowed; they do not provide enough light to drive by.

  78. Q78. A red warning symbol shaped like a car with an exclamation mark often indicates:

    1. A. Cruise control active
    2. B. A general vehicle fault needing attention Correct answer
    3. C. Washer fluid topped up
    4. D. Air conditioning fault

    Explanation. Many cars use a generic warning symbol to flag a fault requiring investigation.

  79. Q79. Front fog lights should only be used when:

    1. A. Visibility is seriously reduced Correct answer
    2. B. Driving on a clear motorway
    3. C. You want to look sporty
    4. D. It is raining lightly

    Explanation. Using fog lights in clear conditions can dazzle others and may be illegal.

  80. Q80. Driving with a brake light out could result in:

    1. A. Better fuel consumption
    2. B. A fixed-penalty notice and MOT failure Correct answer
    3. C. Free parking
    4. D. A discount on insurance

    Explanation. Brake lights are a legal requirement; a failed bulb can be penalised.

  81. Q81. A flashing green arrow on the dashboard most commonly indicates:

    1. A. Direction indicator operating Correct answer
    2. B. Low tyre pressure
    3. C. Engine fault
    4. D. Cruise control

    Explanation. The flashing green arrow shows the indicator (turn signal) is in operation.

  82. Q82. If an indicator flashes faster than normal, this usually means:

    1. A. One of the bulbs has failed Correct answer
    2. B. The battery is fully charged
    3. C. Speed is too high
    4. D. Oil is low

    Explanation. A rapid indicator flash traditionally signals a blown bulb in that indicator circuit.

  83. Q83. Headlight cleaning/washers are usually required on:

    1. A. Cars fitted with xenon or some LED headlights Correct answer
    2. B. All petrol cars
    3. C. Classic cars
    4. D. Electric cars only

    Explanation. Higher-intensity headlamps typically require cleaning systems to keep beam pattern clean.

  84. Q84. Headlight levelling should be adjusted when:

    1. A. Carrying a heavy load or passengers in the rear Correct answer
    2. B. Driving alone on the motorway
    3. C. The engine is cold
    4. D. You have just refuelled

    Explanation. Extra rear load raises the front of the car and can blind oncoming drivers unless the headlamps are levelled down.

  85. Q85. Flashing headlights should only be used to:

    1. A. Give priority
    2. B. Let others know you are there Correct answer
    3. C. Thank a driver
    4. D. Tell people to move over

    Explanation. The Highway Code says headlight flashes mean the same as a horn — to alert others of your presence.

  86. Q86. If a number plate light has failed, the vehicle:

    1. A. Is still roadworthy
    2. B. May fail an MOT and could be issued a fixed-penalty notice Correct answer
    3. C. Can only be driven on motorways
    4. D. Must be scrapped

    Explanation. Number plate lights are a legal requirement after lighting-up time.

  87. Q87. Reversing lights come on:

    1. A. When you press the brake
    2. B. When reverse gear is engaged Correct answer
    3. C. With the indicators
    4. D. When the handbrake is applied

    Explanation. Reversing lamps are wired to illuminate when reverse is selected to warn others.

  88. Q88. Auto headlights switch on in response to:

    1. A. Ambient light sensed by a sensor on the dash or windscreen Correct answer
    2. B. Tyre pressure
    3. C. Engine speed
    4. D. Driver weight

    Explanation. A photo sensor activates the lamps when it detects low light.

  89. Q89. Clean headlight lenses are important because:

    1. A. Dirty lenses reduce light output and can dazzle others Correct answer
    2. B. Clean lenses look nicer only
    3. C. Dirt improves cooling
    4. D. The MOT does not check lenses

    Explanation. A film of dirt scatters light; keep lenses clean to maintain pattern and intensity.

  90. Q90. If another driver flashes their main beam at you at night, you should:

    1. A. Flash back immediately
    2. B. Assume they are warning you of something and look out Correct answer
    3. C. Brake suddenly
    4. D. Speed up

    Explanation. Treat such signals as potential warnings and scan the road ahead.

  91. Q91. Blue flashing lights on a stationary vehicle indicate:

    1. A. A delivery lorry
    2. B. An emergency vehicle that you may need to give way to Correct answer
    3. C. A taxi
    4. D. A broken-down car

    Explanation. Blue lights denote emergency services; slow down and give space as needed.

  92. Q92. You should adjust your mirrors:

    1. A. Before starting the journey Correct answer
    2. B. While driving at 30 mph
    3. C. Only if requested by a passenger
    4. D. Once a year

    Explanation. Mirrors should be set before moving off, when the vehicle is stationary and you are in your normal driving position.

  93. Q93. Blind spots are areas that:

    1. A. Are covered perfectly by mirrors
    2. B. Cannot be seen by using mirrors alone Correct answer
    3. C. Only exist at night
    4. D. Are marked on the road

    Explanation. Blind spots sit beside and behind the car and require a head check to cover.

  94. Q94. Before changing lane on a dual carriageway you should:

    1. A. Mirror, signal, manoeuvre — and a brief blind-spot check Correct answer
    2. B. Just signal
    3. C. Just mirror
    4. D. Nothing — the system will warn you

    Explanation. Use MSM plus a quick shoulder glance to cover blind spots.

  95. Q95. Convex (curved) door mirrors show:

    1. A. A wider but slightly distorted view Correct answer
    2. B. A narrower view
    3. C. An upside-down view
    4. D. The same view as flat glass

    Explanation. Convex mirrors widen the field of view, but make objects appear further away than they really are.

  96. Q96. An anti-dazzle interior mirror should be set to the "night" position when:

    1. A. Driving in bright sunshine
    2. B. A following vehicle's headlights dazzle you Correct answer
    3. C. Towing a caravan
    4. D. Reversing

    Explanation. Flipping the tab dims the reflection of headlights behind.

  97. Q97. If your door mirror is folded in, you should:

    1. A. Continue driving — it makes no difference
    2. B. Unfold it before setting off so you can see behind properly Correct answer
    3. C. Tape it in position
    4. D. Remove it

    Explanation. Mirrors must give a clear view to the rear; unfold them before driving.

  98. Q98. Mirror icons on the dashboard with an amber/orange symbol often indicate:

    1. A. Blind-spot monitoring warning Correct answer
    2. B. Low washer fluid
    3. C. Engine oil low
    4. D. High beam active

    Explanation. Many cars display a small amber icon in the mirror when a vehicle is detected in the blind spot.

  99. Q99. Before opening your door after parking, you should:

    1. A. Just push it open quickly
    2. B. Check mirrors and over your shoulder for passing traffic and cyclists Correct answer
    3. C. Sound the horn
    4. D. Signal left

    Explanation. The "Dutch reach" or a thorough mirror/shoulder check reduces the risk of dooring cyclists.

  100. Q100. When reversing, you should primarily:

    1. A. Rely only on mirrors and sensors
    2. B. Look around, using all mirrors and checking behind, including blind spots Correct answer
    3. C. Use the interior mirror only
    4. D. Listen for pedestrians

    Explanation. Good all-round observation is essential when reversing.

  101. Q101. You notice your passenger-side mirror is cracked. You should:

    1. A. Leave it until MOT
    2. B. Replace it, as a damaged mirror can fail the MOT and impair vision Correct answer
    3. C. Cover it with tape
    4. D. Fold it in permanently

    Explanation. Cracked mirrors distort the image and may fail an MOT.

  102. Q102. Heated door mirrors help by:

    1. A. Reducing tyre wear
    2. B. Clearing ice and condensation for visibility Correct answer
    3. C. Charging the battery
    4. D. Adjusting the seats

    Explanation. An integrated element defrosts the mirror for clearer rearward vision.

  103. Q103. Where should the horizon appear in a correctly-adjusted door mirror?

    1. A. At the top
    2. B. Roughly in the middle Correct answer
    3. C. At the bottom
    4. D. It should not be visible

    Explanation. Setting horizon near the centre shows an even mix of road and sky.

  104. Q104. If a following vehicle is too close, what should you do?

    1. A. Brake suddenly
    2. B. Increase the gap to the vehicle in front and stay calm Correct answer
    3. C. Flash your hazards
    4. D. Reverse quickly

    Explanation. Making more room ahead buys time for both you and the tailgater to stop safely.

  105. Q105. Electric mirrors that don't move may indicate:

    1. A. A blown fuse, motor failure or switch fault Correct answer
    2. B. Low tyre pressure
    3. C. Flat battery
    4. D. Clutch wear

    Explanation. Electrical or mechanical faults usually explain mirror motor issues.

  106. Q106. The Mirror-Signal-Manoeuvre routine should be used:

    1. A. Only at traffic lights
    2. B. Before any change in speed or direction Correct answer
    3. C. Only when overtaking
    4. D. Only in towns

    Explanation. MSM is a core safety routine applied before every significant action.

  107. Q107. Who is responsible for ensuring a passenger under 14 wears a seat belt or appropriate child restraint?

    1. A. The child
    2. B. The driver Correct answer
    3. C. The front passenger
    4. D. Nobody

    Explanation. The driver is legally responsible for under-14s using the correct restraint.

  108. Q108. Children under 3 must travel in:

    1. A. An adult seat belt only
    2. B. An appropriate child restraint for their weight/height (with limited taxi exceptions) Correct answer
    3. C. The front passenger footwell
    4. D. A booster cushion

    Explanation. Under-3s must use a proper child restraint in almost all cars.

  109. Q109. A rear-facing child seat must never be fitted in a front passenger seat with:

    1. A. An active front airbag Correct answer
    2. B. Heated seats
    3. C. Leather upholstery
    4. D. Adjustable head restraints

    Explanation. A deploying airbag can seriously injure a rear-facing child; disable it or use the back seat.

  110. Q110. A correctly-fitted head restraint should:

    1. A. Touch the ceiling
    2. B. Be roughly level with the top of the head Correct answer
    3. C. Sit at shoulder height
    4. D. Be pushed fully down

    Explanation. Proper head restraint height reduces whiplash risk in rear impacts.

  111. Q111. The main purpose of an airbag is to:

    1. A. Replace the seat belt
    2. B. Cushion impact and work together with the seat belt Correct answer
    3. C. Keep the cabin cool
    4. D. Protect against theft

    Explanation. Airbags are supplementary restraints designed to work alongside seat belts.

  112. Q112. A permanently illuminated airbag warning light means:

    1. A. The system is armed
    2. B. There is a fault; it may not deploy correctly Correct answer
    3. C. The seat is occupied
    4. D. The car is charging

    Explanation. A steady airbag light usually indicates a fault that should be diagnosed promptly.

  113. Q113. Children must generally use a child restraint until they are:

    1. A. 12 years old or 135 cm tall (whichever first) Correct answer
    2. B. Old enough to reach the pedals
    3. C. 16 years old
    4. D. 5 years old

    Explanation. UK law requires child restraints until age 12 or 135 cm tall.

  114. Q114. Wearing a lap-and-diagonal seat belt:

    1. A. Is optional for short trips
    2. B. Is required by law where fitted, for driver and all passengers (with limited exceptions) Correct answer
    3. C. Is only needed on motorways
    4. D. Is only for the front seats

    Explanation. Seat belts must be worn by everyone, subject to narrow exemptions.

  115. Q115. A pre-tensioner on a seat belt:

    1. A. Automatically loosens the belt
    2. B. Takes up slack in a collision to hold the occupant firmly Correct answer
    3. C. Warms the belt in winter
    4. D. Ejects the belt

    Explanation. Pyrotechnic pre-tensioners pull the belt tight in the first milliseconds of a crash.

  116. Q116. Wearing a seat belt twisted or under the arm:

    1. A. Is fine
    2. B. Reduces effectiveness and can cause serious injury Correct answer
    3. C. Is safer
    4. D. Is required by law

    Explanation. Belts must lie flat over the shoulder and hips to spread crash forces correctly.

  117. Q117. Loose items on the parcel shelf are a safety concern because:

    1. A. They can block the radio signal
    2. B. They can become dangerous projectiles in a collision Correct answer
    3. C. They lower the temperature
    4. D. They damage the tyres

    Explanation. Unsecured objects fly forward in a crash with potentially lethal force.

  118. Q118. Roof loads should be:

    1. A. Secured on an approved roof rack/bars with straps, within weight limits Correct answer
    2. B. Tied with string only
    3. C. Held by passengers
    4. D. Placed loose

    Explanation. Use proper bars and straps, respecting the manufacturer's roof-load rating.

  119. Q119. An overloaded vehicle will typically:

    1. A. Handle better
    2. B. Have longer stopping distances and altered handling Correct answer
    3. C. Use less fuel
    4. D. Be safer in corners

    Explanation. Extra weight lengthens stopping and changes the centre of gravity.

  120. Q120. The driver is legally responsible for:

    1. A. Only their own seat belt
    2. B. Ensuring the vehicle is roadworthy and loaded within legal limits Correct answer
    3. C. Only engine performance
    4. D. Only the paintwork

    Explanation. Drivers must ensure their vehicle meets construction and use requirements before each trip.

  121. Q121. The safest place for a child seat is generally:

    1. A. Front passenger seat with airbag on
    2. B. In the centre rear seat, if a suitable belt/ISOFIX is fitted Correct answer
    3. C. The boot
    4. D. A folding seat

    Explanation. Research suggests the middle rear position is usually safest when properly fitted.

  122. Q122. Smearing wipers usually mean:

    1. A. The blades are worn and need replacing Correct answer
    2. B. The washer fluid is full
    3. C. Tyres need checking
    4. D. The battery is flat

    Explanation. Perished rubber blades smear rather than wipe cleanly.

  123. Q123. Driving with an empty washer bottle:

    1. A. Is fine
    2. B. Can cause MOT failure and leaves you unable to clear the screen Correct answer
    3. C. Improves fuel economy
    4. D. Is required in summer

    Explanation. Washers must function for MOT compliance and for clearing road spray and insects.

  124. Q124. A chip in the windscreen directly in the driver's line of sight larger than about 10 mm will:

    1. A. Pass the MOT
    2. B. Likely fail the MOT and should be repaired/replaced Correct answer
    3. C. Improve visibility
    4. D. Be fine if clean

    Explanation. Zone A damage larger than 10 mm is an MOT failure.

  125. Q125. In freezing weather you should:

    1. A. Pour boiling water on the screen
    2. B. Use a de-icer/scraper and ensure washer fluid has anti-freeze additive Correct answer
    3. C. Drive off with a small clear patch
    4. D. Leave the wipers on ice

    Explanation. Boiling water can crack glass; use proper tools and a winter screenwash.

  126. Q126. Turning on wipers on a dry screen can:

    1. A. Polish the glass
    2. B. Scratch the glass and shred the blades Correct answer
    3. C. Charge the battery
    4. D. Dry the engine

    Explanation. Dry wiping drags grit across the glass; always wet the screen first.

  127. Q127. Rear screen demisters typically work by:

    1. A. Blowing cold air
    2. B. Heating fine wires embedded in the glass Correct answer
    3. C. Vibrating the glass
    4. D. Spraying water

    Explanation. Electrically heated elements clear condensation and ice from the rear window.

  128. Q128. Condensation inside the windscreen is best removed by:

    1. A. Wiping with a greasy cloth
    2. B. Using the demister with warm air and possibly the air conditioning Correct answer
    3. C. Opening the bonnet
    4. D. Leaving it to clear itself

    Explanation. Dry, warm air (or AC) pulls moisture from the cabin and clears the glass.

  129. Q129. How often should wiper blades be replaced typically?

    1. A. Every ten years
    2. B. About once a year or when performance drops Correct answer
    3. C. Every six weeks
    4. D. Never

    Explanation. Rubber perishes with UV and use; annual replacement is a common guide.

  130. Q130. Cracked or pitted windscreens can:

    1. A. Be ignored
    2. B. Reduce visibility, especially into low sun, and may be illegal Correct answer
    3. C. Improve aerodynamics
    4. D. Make the car lighter

    Explanation. Damage scatters light and can obstruct the driver's view.

  131. Q131. When the washer fails on the motorway you should:

    1. A. Continue and clean at the next safe stop Correct answer
    2. B. Stop on the hard shoulder to wash
    3. C. Lean out and wipe the screen
    4. D. Pour drinks out of the window

    Explanation. Don't stop on the hard shoulder for non-emergencies; wait for a services area.

  132. Q132. Stickers and tints in zone A of the windscreen:

    1. A. Are always permitted
    2. B. Can fail the MOT if they obstruct the driver's view Correct answer
    3. C. Improve visibility
    4. D. Reduce glare safely in all cases

    Explanation. Items obscuring the swept area are an MOT failure.

  133. Q133. Dashcams should be mounted:

    1. A. Directly in front of the driver's face
    2. B. So they do not significantly obstruct the driver's field of view Correct answer
    3. C. On the steering wheel
    4. D. On the dashboard, pointing at you

    Explanation. Cameras must not block the driver's view; typically behind the mirror is ideal.

  134. Q134. Summer screen wash differs from winter mainly in:

    1. A. Freezing point additives Correct answer
    2. B. Colour only
    3. C. Price
    4. D. None — they are identical

    Explanation. Winter formulations resist freezing at low temperatures.

  135. Q135. Heated windscreens with visible fine wires:

    1. A. Clear frost and mist quickly Correct answer
    2. B. Block the view completely
    3. C. Replace wipers
    4. D. Are decorative

    Explanation. Heating elements in the glass quickly melt frost and clear fog.

  136. Q136. Waxy rain-repellent coatings on the windscreen:

    1. A. Replace wipers entirely
    2. B. Can improve wet-weather vision but wipers are still required Correct answer
    3. C. Are illegal
    4. D. Reduce fuel economy

    Explanation. Hydrophobic coatings help rain bead and roll off but do not remove the need for working wipers.

  137. Q137. A red oil-can warning lamp usually means:

    1. A. Low engine oil pressure — stop safely and check immediately Correct answer
    2. B. Oil change due soon
    3. C. Add windscreen washer
    4. D. Battery charging

    Explanation. Red oil pressure warnings are serious; continuing can destroy the engine.

  138. Q138. The engine temperature gauge reads high. You should:

    1. A. Drive faster to cool the engine
    2. B. Pull over safely, switch off and investigate Correct answer
    3. C. Turn the heater off
    4. D. Add water while hot

    Explanation. Overheating can cause severe damage; stop safely and allow the engine to cool before checking.

  139. Q139. You should never remove the radiator/coolant cap when:

    1. A. The engine is cold
    2. B. The engine is hot and pressurised Correct answer
    3. C. The car is parked
    4. D. It is raining

    Explanation. Hot pressurised coolant can spray out and cause serious burns.

  140. Q140. A battery warning light while driving typically indicates:

    1. A. Charging system fault (alternator or belt) Correct answer
    2. B. Oil is low
    3. C. Tyre pressure low
    4. D. Washer fluid low

    Explanation. The red battery symbol usually signals the alternator is not charging.

  141. Q141. Engine oil should be checked:

    1. A. On a level surface with the engine off and cooled Correct answer
    2. B. At full revs
    3. C. Only by a mechanic
    4. D. While the car is moving

    Explanation. A reliable dipstick reading requires the car level and oil settled.

  142. Q142. Overfilling engine oil can cause:

    1. A. Smoother running only
    2. B. Foaming, oil leaks and engine damage Correct answer
    3. C. No effect
    4. D. Better fuel economy

    Explanation. Too much oil is as damaging as too little; keep to the min/max markings.

  143. Q143. A typical sign that engine coolant is low is:

    1. A. A warning light and rising temperature gauge Correct answer
    2. B. Heated seats failing
    3. C. Slow wipers
    4. D. Dim headlights

    Explanation. Low coolant triggers dedicated warnings and temperature issues.

  144. Q144. Brake fluid should be topped up with:

    1. A. Water
    2. B. The grade specified in the handbook (e.g. DOT 4) Correct answer
    3. C. Engine oil
    4. D. Any kind of fluid

    Explanation. Only use the correct specification as given by the manufacturer.

  145. Q145. If brake fluid is repeatedly low, you should:

    1. A. Keep topping it up
    2. B. Have the brake system inspected for leaks or worn pads Correct answer
    3. C. Use water instead
    4. D. Ignore it

    Explanation. Persistent loss indicates a fault that must be diagnosed and fixed.

  146. Q146. The engine management (check engine) light flashing usually indicates:

    1. A. A serious misfire needing prompt attention Correct answer
    2. B. An overdue service
    3. C. Low fuel
    4. D. Low washer fluid

    Explanation. A flashing MIL often signals a misfire that could damage the catalyst.

  147. Q147. Blue exhaust smoke suggests:

    1. A. Engine burning oil Correct answer
    2. B. Normal running
    3. C. Too much fuel
    4. D. Cold start only

    Explanation. Blue smoke typically indicates oil entering the combustion chamber.

  148. Q148. White exhaust smoke on a hot engine may indicate:

    1. A. Coolant entering the cylinders Correct answer
    2. B. Normal cold-start steam
    3. C. Overinflation of tyres
    4. D. High oil level

    Explanation. Persistent white smoke when warm can point to head-gasket issues.

  149. Q149. A diesel particulate filter (DPF) warning typically requires:

    1. A. A steady run at higher speeds to regenerate, per the handbook Correct answer
    2. B. Ignoring the light
    3. C. Adding water to the tank
    4. D. Swapping to petrol

    Explanation. Many DPFs regenerate by driving at sustained speed to burn off soot.

  150. Q150. You notice fuel leaking from the underside of your car. You should:

    1. A. Drive home quickly
    2. B. Stop safely, keep away from ignition sources and get expert help Correct answer
    3. C. Call another driver
    4. D. Carry on and refuel

    Explanation. Leaking fuel is a fire risk; immobilise the vehicle safely.

  151. Q151. An illuminated power-steering warning may mean:

    1. A. Heavier steering effort until fixed Correct answer
    2. B. No ignition
    3. C. Flat tyres
    4. D. Seatbelt fault

    Explanation. If power assistance fails, steering still works but requires more effort.

  152. Q152. Which of the following is NOT a typical engine fluid to check?

    1. A. Engine oil
    2. B. Coolant
    3. C. Brake fluid
    4. D. Battery electrolyte (on most modern sealed batteries) Correct answer

    Explanation. Most modern batteries are sealed/maintenance-free; the rest should be checked regularly.

  153. Q153. A high-pitched squeal from the engine bay at start-up often means:

    1. A. A slipping or worn auxiliary belt Correct answer
    2. B. Healthy brakes
    3. C. Low tyre pressure
    4. D. Clutch wear

    Explanation. Belt glaze or tension issues typically cause start-up squeals.

  154. Q154. Cruise control should not be used:

    1. A. On dry, clear motorways
    2. B. In icy, wet or heavily congested conditions Correct answer
    3. C. On long journeys
    4. D. In moderate traffic where it is safe

    Explanation. Traction-reducing conditions or frequent braking make cruise unsafe.

  155. Q155. Turning the engine off while coasting downhill:

    1. A. Saves fuel safely
    2. B. Is dangerous — power steering and brake servo assistance may reduce Correct answer
    3. C. Is legal and required
    4. D. Improves control

    Explanation. Engine-off coasting loses vacuum assistance and can lock the steering.

  156. Q156. A strong smell of petrol inside the car:

    1. A. Is normal
    2. B. Should be investigated immediately as it suggests a leak or fault Correct answer
    3. C. Means fuel is full
    4. D. Indicates a clean engine

    Explanation. Any fuel smell is a potential fire hazard and must be checked.

  157. Q157. Most cars require their first MOT when they are:

    1. A. Three years old Correct answer
    2. B. One year old
    3. C. Five years old
    4. D. Ten years old

    Explanation. Cars in the UK generally need their first MOT at three years from first registration.

  158. Q158. Driving without a valid MOT (except to a pre-booked test) is:

    1. A. Legal if insured
    2. B. Illegal and can invalidate insurance Correct answer
    3. C. Legal for short trips
    4. D. Legal under 30 mph

    Explanation. No MOT means no lawful driving and likely no effective insurance cover.

  159. Q159. The horn must not generally be used in a built-up area between:

    1. A. 11:30 pm and 7:00 am Correct answer
    2. B. 10:00 pm and 6:00 am
    3. C. 8:00 pm and 8:00 am
    4. D. Midnight and 4:00 am

    Explanation. Highway Code rule 112 prohibits horn use in built-up areas between 23:30 and 07:00.

  160. Q160. The horn should be used:

    1. A. To warn others of your presence when necessary Correct answer
    2. B. To express anger
    3. C. To say thank you
    4. D. As a greeting

    Explanation. Horns are a warning device, not a communication tool.

  161. Q161. If your vehicle becomes unroadworthy mid-journey you should:

    1. A. Continue home at any cost
    2. B. Stop at the nearest safe place and arrange repair or recovery Correct answer
    3. C. Drive at night only
    4. D. Ignore it

    Explanation. Driving a vehicle that is not roadworthy is illegal and dangerous.

  162. Q162. Which of these is most likely to fail an MOT emissions test?

    1. A. A well-serviced engine
    2. B. A faulty catalytic converter Correct answer
    3. C. New tyres
    4. D. Clean oil

    Explanation. A failed cat typically causes an emissions failure.

  163. Q163. A loud exhaust rumble may indicate:

    1. A. A hole or leak in the exhaust Correct answer
    2. B. Over-inflated tyres
    3. C. A flat battery
    4. D. Worn wipers

    Explanation. Holes or failed joints change the exhaust note and can leak fumes.

  164. Q164. Carrying a bulky load sticking out of the boot requires:

    1. A. Ignoring it
    2. B. Securing it properly and, if significantly projecting, using appropriate markers Correct answer
    3. C. Driving with the boot open only
    4. D. Reducing tyre pressures

    Explanation. Projecting loads must be secured and marked per the rules.

  165. Q165. Adaptive cruise control:

    1. A. Maintains a set speed only
    2. B. Automatically adjusts speed to keep a gap from the vehicle ahead Correct answer
    3. C. Steers the car
    4. D. Parks for you

    Explanation. ACC uses radar/cameras to keep a set following distance.

  166. Q166. If power steering fails at low speed, steering will:

    1. A. Become impossible
    2. B. Still work, but be much heavier Correct answer
    3. C. Lock up
    4. D. Fix itself

    Explanation. Manual steering is still possible but requires far more effort.

  167. Q167. Before driving off, a safe routine includes:

    1. A. Fuel, oil, rubber, electrics, water — or at least mirrors/seatbelt/lights checks Correct answer
    2. B. Only starting the engine
    3. C. Checking the radio
    4. D. Only mirrors

    Explanation. Regular POWER (or FORWARD) checks catch minor issues before they cause problems.

  168. Q168. You must not sound the horn:

    1. A. While moving, in a built-up area between 11:30 pm and 7:00 am Correct answer
    2. B. Ever, on any road
    3. C. In rain
    4. D. Near schools at any time

    Explanation. Rule 112 restricts horn use at night in built-up areas while moving.

  169. Q169. Testing your brakes as you move off is:

    1. A. Unnecessary
    2. B. A sensible check on every journey Correct answer
    3. C. Illegal
    4. D. Only for lorries

    Explanation. A brief brake dab early in the journey confirms they are working.

  170. Q170. If you suspect a vehicle defect caused a minor crash, you should:

    1. A. Drive on
    2. B. Report the incident, have the car checked and not drive if unsafe Correct answer
    3. C. Say nothing
    4. D. Only tell your friends

    Explanation. Roadworthiness is the driver's responsibility; have issues diagnosed.

  171. Q171. Heavy items placed in the boot should be:

    1. A. Loose at the back
    2. B. Secured and placed low and forward to maintain balance Correct answer
    3. C. Only on top of soft items
    4. D. Piled high to the roof

    Explanation. Low, forward, secured loads minimise handling changes and injury risk.

  172. Q172. The horn must not generally be used in a built-up area while moving between:

    1. A. 11:30 pm and 7:00 am Correct answer
    2. B. Midnight and 6:00 am
    3. C. 10:00 pm and 5:00 am
    4. D. 9:00 pm and 8:00 am

    Explanation. Highway Code rule 112 forbids horn use in built-up areas between 23:30 and 07:00 while moving.

  173. Q173. When visibility in daylight falls below about 100 metres, you must use:

    1. A. Sidelights only
    2. B. Dipped headlights Correct answer
    3. C. Full beam
    4. D. No lights

    Explanation. The Highway Code specifies dipped headlights in seriously reduced visibility.

  174. Q174. Front fog lights should be switched on only when:

    1. A. It is dark
    2. B. Visibility is seriously reduced (typically under 100 m) Correct answer
    3. C. Driving on a motorway
    4. D. At all times for safety

    Explanation. Using fog lights in good visibility can dazzle and may be an offence.

  175. Q175. Rear fog lights should be switched off as soon as visibility improves because:

    1. A. They dazzle drivers behind Correct answer
    2. B. They save fuel
    3. C. They wear out tyres
    4. D. They are illegal at night

    Explanation. Leaving rear fog lights on in clear conditions dazzles following drivers.

  176. Q176. All vehicles' tyres must be:

    1. A. A matching colour
    2. B. In a fit condition: properly inflated, correct type and legal tread Correct answer
    3. C. Branded the same
    4. D. Less than a month old

    Explanation. Tyres must be roadworthy regardless of vehicle type.

  177. Q177. Insurance is legally required to:

    1. A. Carry passengers
    2. B. Use or keep a vehicle on a public road Correct answer
    3. C. Refuel
    4. D. Enter a car park

    Explanation. You must have valid insurance to drive or keep a vehicle on the road.

  178. Q178. When lights should be used, a flashing headlight from another vehicle:

    1. A. Means "give way to me"
    2. B. Is a warning of their presence Correct answer
    3. C. Is a thank-you signal
    4. D. Indicates a faulty bulb always

    Explanation. The Highway Code treats a headlight flash as equivalent to a horn — "I am here".

  179. Q179. Hazard warning lights while parked mean:

    1. A. You are about to move
    2. B. You are a temporary obstruction Correct answer
    3. C. You are racing
    4. D. Your engine has failed permanently

    Explanation. Hazards indicate a temporary stop or obstruction, e.g. breakdown.

  180. Q180. Driving any vehicle with defective brakes is:

    1. A. Acceptable if you are careful
    2. B. An offence and extremely dangerous Correct answer
    3. C. Encouraged on quiet roads
    4. D. Only illegal for lorries

    Explanation. Brakes must be effective; driving with defective brakes is unlawful.

  181. Q181. At night on an unlit road, the most appropriate headlight setting is normally:

    1. A. Sidelights
    2. B. Main beam when safe, dipped when meeting or following other vehicles Correct answer
    3. C. Front fog lights only
    4. D. No lights

    Explanation. Use main beam where it will not dazzle, and dip for other road users.

  182. Q182. You should check lights, brakes and tyres:

    1. A. Once a year
    2. B. Regularly, and before any long journey Correct answer
    3. C. Only at the MOT
    4. D. After any crash only

    Explanation. Frequent checks reduce the risk of a failure on the road.

  183. Q183. Which of the following is a driver/rider legal responsibility?

    1. A. Ensuring the vehicle is roadworthy before each journey Correct answer
    2. B. Servicing it themselves
    3. C. Cleaning the engine every week
    4. D. Waxing the paintwork

    Explanation. You must ensure the vehicle is in a fit state to be on the road.

  184. Q184. A horn can be used while moving to:

    1. A. Warn other road users of your presence when needed Correct answer
    2. B. Move cyclists aside
    3. C. Greet friends
    4. D. Claim priority at junctions

    Explanation. The horn is for alerts, not for expressing impatience or greetings.

  185. Q185. Anyone driving or riding must have:

    1. A. A valid UK or accepted licence, insurance and (where applicable) current MOT Correct answer
    2. B. Only a mobile phone
    3. C. Any foreign licence indefinitely
    4. D. Nothing

    Explanation. Licence, insurance and MOT (where required) are basic legal requirements.

  186. Q186. If your vehicle has a defect making it unsafe, you should:

    1. A. Keep driving/riding
    2. B. Not use it on the road until it is repaired Correct answer
    3. C. Drive only at night
    4. D. Use back roads

    Explanation. Using an unroadworthy vehicle risks lives and is an offence.

  187. Q187. Which of these conditions typically increases stopping distances?

    1. A. Wet or icy roads Correct answer
    2. B. Clean, dry tarmac
    3. C. New tyres
    4. D. Engine at correct temperature

    Explanation. Reduced grip in wet/icy conditions can multiply stopping distances.

  188. Q188. Drivers and riders should:

    1. A. Ignore dashboard warnings to save time
    2. B. Investigate dashboard warning lights promptly Correct answer
    3. C. Disable dash warnings
    4. D. Cover them with tape

    Explanation. Warning lights point to faults needing attention — don't ignore them.

  189. Q189. Towards dusk, switching on dipped headlights helps:

    1. A. Save fuel
    2. B. Others see you earlier Correct answer
    3. C. Charge the battery
    4. D. Cool the engine

    Explanation. Being conspicuous as light fades improves safety for all road users.

  190. Q190. A vehicle in poor condition primarily endangers:

    1. A. Only the driver/rider
    2. B. The driver/rider and all other road users Correct answer
    3. C. Only passengers
    4. D. Nobody

    Explanation. Defects can cause crashes harming many people.

  191. Q191. If unsure about a warning light or noise, the safest course is to:

    1. A. Carry on regardless
    2. B. Consult the handbook and/or seek qualified help promptly Correct answer
    3. C. Turn up the radio
    4. D. Guess and keep going

    Explanation. Check the handbook first and get professional diagnosis if needed.

  192. Q192. ABS helps the driver by:

    1. A. Stopping the vehicle faster always
    2. B. Allowing steering control while braking hard Correct answer
    3. C. Replacing tyres
    4. D. Reducing fuel use

    Explanation. Highway Code rule 120: ABS helps prevent wheel lock and allows steering during emergency braking.

  193. Q193. Coasting — driving in neutral or with the clutch down — is dangerous because:

    1. A. It damages the clutch
    2. B. It reduces steering and braking control Correct answer
    3. C. It is illegal
    4. D. It wastes petrol

    Explanation. Highway Code rule 122: Coasting reduces control, especially on bends and hills.

  194. Q194. Progressive braking allows:

    1. A. Faster braking
    2. B. Smooth, controlled braking and warns following traffic Correct answer
    3. C. Less use of the brake
    4. D. Higher fuel consumption

    Explanation. Highway Code rule 117: Brake progressively for smooth control.

  195. Q195. Before braking hard, you should:

    1. A. Sound horn
    2. B. Check your mirrors Correct answer
    3. C. Flash lights
    4. D. Signal

    Explanation. Highway Code rule 117: Check mirrors first.

  196. Q196. ABS kicks in when:

    1. A. Wheels are about to lock under heavy braking Correct answer
    2. B. You press the accelerator
    3. C. Tyres overinflate
    4. D. Engine stalls

    Explanation. Highway Code rule 120: ABS prevents wheel lock.

  197. Q197. Worn tyres can:

    1. A. Improve grip
    2. B. Reduce braking effectiveness and cause aquaplaning Correct answer
    3. C. Only affect fuel use
    4. D. Be legal below minimum depth

    Explanation. Highway Code: Tyres must meet minimum tread.

  198. Q198. Minimum tread depth for a car tyre across central ¾ is:

    1. A. 1.0 mm
    2. B. 1.6 mm Correct answer
    3. C. 2.0 mm
    4. D. 3.0 mm

    Explanation. Annex 6: 1.6 mm minimum.

  199. Q199. You are responsible for ensuring your vehicle is:

    1. A. Clean
    2. B. Roadworthy Correct answer
    3. C. Modern
    4. D. Fast

    Explanation. Highway Code: Keep the vehicle in good condition.

  200. Q200. If your vehicle has ABS, in an emergency you should:

    1. A. Pump the pedal
    2. B. Press firmly and hold, steering as needed Correct answer
    3. C. Use handbrake
    4. D. Change gear

    Explanation. Highway Code rule 120: Firm steady pressure with ABS.

  201. Q201. Daily checks before driving should include:

    1. A. Lights, tyres, fluids, mirrors Correct answer
    2. B. Only fuel
    3. C. Only tyres
    4. D. Nothing

    Explanation. Highway Code rule 97: Basic checks before driving.

  202. Q202. A warning light on the dashboard should:

    1. A. Be ignored
    2. B. Be investigated before continuing Correct answer
    3. C. Be covered up
    4. D. Be disconnected

    Explanation. Highway Code rule 97: Check warnings.

  203. Q203. Tyre pressures should be checked:

    1. A. Once a year
    2. B. Regularly (at least monthly) and before long trips Correct answer
    3. C. Only at MOT
    4. D. Never

    Explanation. Highway Code Annex 6: Regular checks.

  204. Q204. Cracked windscreen in driver's line of sight:

    1. A. Is fine
    2. B. Makes vehicle un-roadworthy until repaired Correct answer
    3. C. Can be covered with tape
    4. D. Is only an issue at night

    Explanation. Highway Code Annex 6.

  205. Q205. Before a long journey, check:

    1. A. Oil, coolant, tyres, lights, screen-wash Correct answer
    2. B. Only fuel
    3. C. Only music
    4. D. Only seat position

    Explanation. Highway Code rule 97.

  206. Q206. Worn tyres increase:

    1. A. Fuel economy
    2. B. Braking distance and skid risk Correct answer
    3. C. Lightness
    4. D. Comfort

    Explanation. Rule 228: Keep tyres in good condition for wet/icy roads.

  207. Q207. Before a long motorway journey you should check:

    1. A. Fuel, oil, water, tyres, lights Correct answer
    2. B. Only fuel
    3. C. Only oil
    4. D. Only tyres

    Explanation. Rule 254: Check vehicle is fit for motorway driving.

  208. Q208. If your tyre bursts you should:

    1. A. Brake hard
    2. B. Hold wheel firmly, let speed drop, pull over safely Correct answer
    3. C. Swerve
    4. D. Turn off engine

    Explanation. Rule 275: Maintain control, slow gradually, stop safely.

  209. Q209. If your bonnet flies up you should:

    1. A. Stop in lane
    2. B. Slow down using side mirrors, pull to the side of the road Correct answer
    3. C. Brake hard
    4. D. Reverse

    Explanation. Rule 279: Stop safely if vision is obstructed.

  210. Q210. The "Dutch Reach" means:

    1. A. Reaching over to grab items
    2. B. Opening the door with the hand furthest from the door, forcing you to look back Correct answer
    3. C. A type of stretch
    4. D. A parking manoeuvre

    Explanation. Rule 239: Using far hand makes you look for cyclists.

  211. Q211. Seat belts must be worn by:

    1. A. Only driver
    2. B. Driver and all passengers where fitted, subject to exemptions Correct answer
    3. C. Children only
    4. D. Nobody

    Explanation. Rule 99-102: Seat belts required where fitted.

  212. Q212. Children under 3 in a car must use:

    1. A. Adult belt
    2. B. An appropriate child restraint Correct answer
    3. C. Nothing
    4. D. Car seat optional

    Explanation. Rule 100: Children under 3 need correct child restraint.

  213. Q213. ABS helps by:

    1. A. Reducing speed
    2. B. Preventing wheel lock-up under hard braking Correct answer
    3. C. Saving fuel
    4. D. Cooling brakes

    Explanation. Rule 120: ABS prevents wheels locking; does not shorten distance.

  214. Q214. ABS does NOT:

    1. A. Prevent skids on icy roads Correct answer
    2. B. Help steering
    3. C. Stop wheels locking
    4. D. Work in deep gravel

    Explanation. Rule 120: ABS cannot prevent all skids on ice.

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